Suppose v1,…,vm is linearly independent in V and w∈V. Prove that if v1+w,…,vm+w is linearly dependent, then w∈span(v1,…,vm).
Suppose v1+w…,vm+w is linearly dependent, then
a1(v1+w)+⋯+am(vm+w)=0
With some aj=0. Distribute and move the w's to one side
a1v1+⋯+amvm=−(a1+⋯+am)w
Since the v's are linearly independent, and some aj=0 we must have a1v1+⋯+amvm=0. Therefor −(a1+⋯+am)w=0 which allows us to divide by the constant term to get
w=b1v1+⋯+bmvm
For bk=−ak/(a1+⋯+am). Thus w∈span(v1,…,vm).