Prove or give a counterexample: If v1,v2,v3,v4 is a basis of V and U is a subspace of V such that v1,v2∈U and v3,v4∈/U, then v1,v2 is a basis of U.
Counterexample: Let V=R4 and
U={(x1,x2,x3,x4)∈V:x4=0}
Let our basis v1,v2,v3,v4 of V be
(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,1),(0,0,1,−1)
(This is the same as 2b/5 so I won't waste time proving it's a basis, later on we'd say they're isomorphic)
We have v1,v2∈U and v3,v4∈/U as desired, but v1,v2 don't span U as they don't control the third component. Thus v1,v2 is not a basis, completing our counterexample.