Prove or give a counterexample: If v1,v2,v3,v4v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4 is a basis of VV and UU is a subspace of VV such that v1,v2Uv_1,v_2 \in U and v3,v4Uv_3,v_4 \notin U, then v1,v2v_1,v_2 is a basis of UU.


Counterexample: Let V=R4V = \mathbf R^4 and

U={(x1,x2,x3,x4)V:x4=0}U = \{(x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4) \in V : x_4 = 0\}

Let our basis v1,v2,v3,v4v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4 of VV be

(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,1),(0,0,1,1)(1,0,0,0),(0,1,0,0),(0,0,1,1),(0,0,1,-1)

(This is the same as 2b/5 so I won't waste time proving it's a basis, later on we'd say they're isomorphic)

We have v1,v2Uv_1,v_2 \in U and v3,v4Uv_3,v_4 \notin U as desired, but v1,v2v_1,v_2 don't span UU as they don't control the third component. Thus v1,v2v_1,v_2 is not a basis, completing our counterexample.