Suppose v1,v2,v3,v4v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4 is linearly independent in VV. Prove that the list

v1v2,v2v3,v3v4,v4v_1-v_2, v_2-v_3, v_3-v_4, v_4

Is also linearly independent.


This is the same list as in 2a/1, notice the two lists are "basically the same" (meaning we can get from one to the other and vise versa by taking linear combinations), so their equivilance makes sense.

The proof is quite straightforward, suppose

a1(v1v2)+a2(v2v3)+a3(v3v4)+a4(v4)=0a_1(v_1-v_2) + a_2(v_2-v_3) + a_3(v_3-v_4) + a_4(v_4) = 0

Then distribute to get

a1v1+(a2a1)v2+(a3a2)v3+(a4a3)v4=0a_1v_1 + (a_2 - a_1)v_2 + (a_3 - a_2)v_3 + (a_4-a_3)v_4 = 0

Since (v1,,v4)(v_1,\dots,v_4) is linearly independent, this implies

a1=(a2a1)=(a3a2)=(a4a3)=0a_1 = (a_2-a_1) = (a_3-a_2) = (a_4-a_3) = 0

Which, using the same telescoping trick as before implies a2=a3=a4=0a_2 = a_3 = a_4 = 0 (add a1a_1 to (a2a1)(a_2-a_1), etc). This completes the proof.


Looking back I don't like this proof, it's a direct computation which doesn't generalize the intuitive concept I stated at the top.

Let's state the general theorem: If v1,,vnv_1,\dots,v_n are linearly independent in VV and w1,,wnw_1,\dots,w_n are such that for all 1kn1 \le k \le n there is some choice of a1,,ana_1,\dots,a_n so that

vk=a1w1++anwnv_k = a_1w_1 + \dots + a_nw_n

Then (w1,,wn)(w_1,\dots,w_n) is linearly independent in VV.

Proving this is easy once we have access to the tools in 2.B, specifically it's a direct consequence of 2.42.